The CAPF (Assistant Commandants) Examination is the Union Public Service Commission's recruitment examination for Assistant Commandants (Group A) in five Central Armed Police Forces: the Border Security Force (BSF), Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF), Central Industrial Security Force (CISF), Indo-Tibetan Border Police (ITBP) and Sashastra Seema Bal (SSB). Both men and women can apply.
This guide explains the examination from UPSC's 2026 notice (No. 08/2026-CAPF, dated 20 February 2026): eligibility, the two written papers, the physical tests, the interview and how merit is decided. It also shows where the 2026 cycle stands and when the 2027 cycle is expected, with a worked example of the marks.
Checked against UPSC documents on upsc.gov.in on 9 October 2026.
2026 vacancies by force
| Force | Vacancies (tentative) |
|---|---|
| BSF | 108 |
| CRPF | 106 |
| ITBP | 12 |
| SSB | 53 |
| CISF | 70 |
| Total | 349 |
The notice says the numbers can change and that 10% of the total vacancies are earmarked for ex-servicemen.
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- Age: at least 20 and under 25 on 1 August 2026, meaning born between 2 August 2001 and 1 August 2006. The upper limit is relaxed by up to 5 years for SC/ST and 3 years for OBC candidates, and by up to 5 years for some civilian central government servants and ex-servicemen, with the government-service relaxation capped at five years.
- Education: a bachelor's degree from a university incorporated by an Act of the central or a state legislature, or an equivalent qualification. NCC 'B' or 'C' certificates are a desirable qualification, considered at the interview.
- Fee: ₹200; SC, ST and women candidates are exempt.
Worked age check (illustrative): a candidate born on 15 March 2002 is 24 on 1 August 2026 and eligible. One born on 15 March 2001 is 25 and is outside the general limit, though an OBC candidate with that birth date would be within the relaxed limit.
The written examination
Both papers are held on the same day.
| Paper | Type | Time | Marks |
|---|---|---|---|
| I: General Ability and Intelligence | Objective, in English and Hindi | 2 hours (10 am–12 noon) | 250 |
| II: General Studies, Essay and Comprehension | Descriptive | 3 hours (2–5 pm) | 200 |
Paper I covers general mental ability, general science, current events, Indian polity and economy, history of India, and Indian and world geography. The 2026 booklet contained 125 questions, so each carried 2 marks. One-third of a question's marks is deducted for a wrong answer.
Paper II has two parts:
- Part A, essays (80 marks): in Hindi or English, on topics such as modern Indian history and the freedom struggle, geography, polity and economy, security and human rights, and analytical ability.
- Part B, comprehension, précis and language skills (120 marks): in English only.
The notice says Paper II is evaluated only for candidates who obtain the minimum qualifying marks in Paper I. A weak Paper I means your essays are never marked.
Physical tests
Candidates who qualify in the written examination take the Physical Standards Test and Physical Efficiency Test. The 2026 written result note says the SSB is the nodal force conducting them.
| Standard | Men | Women |
|---|---|---|
| Height | 165 cm | 157 cm |
| Chest | 81 cm unexpanded, with 5 cm minimum expansion | Not applicable |
| Weight | 50 kg | 46 kg |
| PET event | Men | Women |
|---|---|---|
| 100 m race | 16 seconds | 18 seconds |
| 800 m race | 3 min 45 s | 4 min 45 s |
| Long jump | 3.5 m (3 chances) | 3.0 m (3 chances) |
| Shot put (7.26 kg) | 4.5 m (3 chances) | Not applicable |
The notice also sets eyesight and other medical standards; read Appendix V of the notice before you start training.
Interview, medical and merit
Candidates who pass the physical tests are called for an Interview/Personality Test of 150 marks. The detailed medical examination is held only for candidates who appear in the interview. The merit list is based on the written examination and the interview.
Worked example: how the marks add up
Illustrative only. The marks that count are Paper I (250), Paper II (200) and the interview (150), a total of 600.
Suppose a candidate answers 100 of the 125 Paper I questions, with 75 right and 25 wrong:
- Correct: 75 × 2 = 150
- Penalty: 25 × (2 ÷ 3) = 16.67
- Paper I score: 150 − 16.67 = 133.33 out of 250
If the same candidate scores 110 in Paper II and 90 in the interview, the total is 133.33 + 110 + 90 = 333.33 out of 600. The physical tests carry no marks but must be passed.
Where the 2026 cycle stands
| Step | Date |
|---|---|
| Notice and last date for applications | 20 February and 12 March 2026 |
| Written examination | 19 July 2026 |
| Written result (qualified for PST/PET) | 25 August 2026 |
| Detailed application form window | 7–21 September 2026 |
| PST/PET, interview and final result | Not yet announced on UPSC's site when we checked |
UPSC's tentative calendar for 2027 lists the CAPF (ACs) Examination 2027 notification on 17 February 2027, the last date on 9 March 2027 and the examination on 4 July 2027.
A preparation checklist
Age on 1 August of the exam year, and any relaxation:
Paper I: timed 125-question tests, net score after penalties
Paper II Part A: one timed essay a week (Hindi or English)
Paper II Part B: précis and comprehension practice in English
PET: timed 100 m and 800 m, long jump, and shot put (men)
Height, chest and weight measured by someone else
Date I last checked upsc.gov.in
For the overall UPSC calendar and other central recruitment routes, see our central government jobs guide, and keep dated current-events notes with the current affairs hub.
Frequently asked questions
Can women apply for CAPF Assistant Commandant?
Yes. The 2026 notice says both male and female candidates are eligible.
Is there negative marking in CAPF AC?
Yes, in the objective Paper I: one-third of a question's marks is deducted for each wrong answer.
Does Paper II get marked if I fail Paper I?
No. The notice says Paper II is evaluated only for candidates who obtain the minimum qualifying marks in Paper I.